Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.

Question 1: A. for        B. with        C. into        D. to

Question 2: A. misreading        B. misread        C. misrecord        D. misreadably

Question 3: A. cropping        B. to crop        C. crop        D. cropped

Question 4: A. jump        B. leap        C. draw        D. run

Question 5: A. pause        B. paused        C. to pause        D. pausing

Question 6: A. chatting household norm        B. household norms chated
C. household norm chats        D. household chat norms

Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.

Question 7: A. the others        B. another        C. others        D. the other

Question 8: A. trickle        B. pile        C. surplus        D. batch

Question 9: A. put off        B. stamp out        C. drop by        D. hand in

Question 10: A. In contrast to        B. On the back of        C. In addition to        D. In exchange for

Question 11: A. budget        B. method        C. myth        D. comment

Question 12: A. homework         B. furniture        C. habitat        D. timetable

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to make a cohesive and coherent exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.

Question 13:

A. Kai: Deal. We’ll share a small cup and grab fruit after.

B. Lena: Maybe split. I love the hangout, but the sugar makes me crash—and it’s pricey.

C. Kai: Everyone’s lining up for the new brown-sugar milk tea. Want one?

A.  b – a – c        B. b – c – a        C. c – b – a        D. a – c – b

Question 14:

A. Owen: I’m nervous; what if he thinks we caused it? People usually record.

B. Maya: That guy just fell off his bike—should we run over?

C. Owen: Okay, I’ll phone emergency and tell others to give space.

D. Maya: Recording can help later, but first ask if he’s okay and call an ambulance; I’ll keep distance.

e. Maya: Great—if he agrees, you can note the plate number instead of filming his face.

A.  b – c – d – a – e        B. b – a – d – c – e        C. a – b – d – c – e        D. b – d – c – a – e

Question 15:

Dear Anna,

A. Some influencers promoted expensive “healing bundles,” and the tips felt like the same script with different music.

B. To test what actually helps, I joined a free workshop at the community center, where a counselor taught breathing and a simple journaling routine.

C. Those small habits made my evenings calmer, even without fancy playlists, crystals, or paid challenges.

D. Lately I’ve been seeing short clips that promise to fix stress in three days, so I almost fell for the hype.

e. Now I treat the trend as a doorway, but I check who is trained, what evidence they use, and what I can practice safely on my own.

A.  b – d – c – a – e        B. d – b – c – a – e        C. d – c – b – a – e        D. d – a – b – c – e

Question 16:

A. Teachers say fewer phones means fewer quick videos, fewer group-chat fights, and more attention in class.

B. If phones disappear completely, some students will hide them anyway, which turns the rule into a daily game.

C. Our school is debating a phone ban, and the hallway already feels louder when everyone stares at screens.

D. Yet in my math lesson we use a QR code to open practice quizzes, and I check a dictionary app when I read English.

e. A smarter plan is “phones face down” plus clear times to use them for learning, so the tool stays a tool.

A.  c – d – a – b – e        B. a – c – d – b – e        C. c – a – d – b – e        D. c – a – b – d – e

Question 17:

A. The shift gradually taught him to greet unfamiliar customers, process QR payments efficiently, and remain composed when the queue stretched to the door.

B. In his first year of university, Minh accepted a weekend job at a small bakery because his scholarship was too limited to cover transport, books, and other basic expenses.

C. Taking a part-time job early can foster independence and resilience, but only when academic work remains the priority and employers respect reasonable limits.

D. Before long, however, he was watching recorded lectures at one in the morning, and his notes became increasingly disorganized because his mind was still stuck in work mode.

e. As a result, when the manager offered additional hours, Minh learned to decline politely, schedule fixed study blocks, and monitor his sleep as carefully as he tracked his spending.

A.  b – a – e – d – c        B. b – a – d – e – c        C. a – b – d – e – c        D. b – d – a – e – c

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.

Question 18:
A. that being everywhere and replying instantly is a performance of an exciting life
B. everywhere to be, instantly replying, and performing life versions that look exciting
C. to be everywhere, reply instantly, and perform a version of life that looks exciting from the outside
D. for being everywhere, replying instantly, and performing life versions excitingly from the outside

Question 19:

A.  who is a deliberate strategy to protect attention, energy, and emotional stability in an environment

B.  acts as the environment that protects attention, energy, and stability against deliberate strategies

C.  is a deliberate strategy for protecting attention, energy, and emotional stability in an environment

D.  a deliberate strategy to protect attention, energy, and emotional stability within demanding environments

Question 20:

A.  Quiet boundaries are kept when evenings are device-free, recovery time is scheduled, and invitations are accepted with a long explanation

B.  Someone might keep device-free evenings, scheduling recovery time after intense workdays, or declining invitations with a long explanation

C.  Keeping evenings device-free, scheduling recovery time after intense workdays, and declining invitations without a long explanation

D.  Someone might keep evenings device-free, schedule recovery time after intense workdays, or decline invitations without offering a long explanation

Question 21:
A. for whom constant connectivity has taught that their worth is tied to performance and visibility

B.  for which constant connectivity frames visibility and busyness as proof of significance
C. whose constant connectivity has nurtured the belief that rest reduces value and presence

D.  who constant connectivity has taught link their worth with performance and visibility

Question 22:

A.  and not because it encourages doing less, but because it treats mental recovery as a requirement for focus

B.  not because it encourages doing less, but because it treats mental recovery as a requirement for sustained focus
C. in that it encourages doing less, but it also recognizes that mental recovery is a requirement for sustained focus

D.  despite its encouragement of doing less, it treats mental recovery as a requirement for sustained focus instead

Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.

Question 23: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as a traditional component of the "familiar script" of career success?

A.  Ascending through various levels of professional hierarchy.

B.  The accumulation of material wealth over a working life.

C.  Achieving a sense of fulfillment upon concluding a career.

D.  The necessity of frequent career pivots to maintain seniority.

Question 24: The word "embedded" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.

A.  displaced        B. engrained        C. enclosed        D. invested

Question 25: In which paragraph does the author discuss how individuals can actively tailor their work roles to align with their personal capabilities?

A.  Paragraph 1        B. Paragraph 2        C. Paragraph 3        D. Paragraph 4

Question 26: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to __________.

A.  an impressive title                        B. subjective career success        

C.  long-term wellbeing                        D. career crafting

Question 27: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3: “Careers built mainly on external rewards can look successful but still lead to burnout, disengagement, and a sense of emptiness.”?

A.  Scarcely had professionals attained success through extrinsic motivators when they realized that such paths are invariably synonymous with spiritual fulfillment and resilience.

B.  Granted that professional trajectories fueled by outward accolades seem flourishing, they frequently act as catalysts for psychological fatigue and a lack of occupational commitment.

C.  Such is the allure of high-status careers that only by disregarding external incentives can workers circumvent the inevitable cycle of professional exhaustion and detachment.

D.  Had it not been for the pursuit of tangible rewards, those in high-profile positions would have succumbed to burnout and a pervasive sense of purposelessness much sooner.

Question 28: The word "chasing" in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to __________.

A.  pursuing        B. shunning        C. following        D. confronting

Question 29: In which paragraph does the author mention that external influences can hinder people from reflecting on their own career choices?

A.  Paragraph 1        B. Paragraph 2        C. Paragraph 3        D. Paragraph 4

Question 30: According to the final paragraph, what is the primary benefit of committing to continuous development?

A.  It guarantees a career path that remains entirely free from any professional transitions.

B.  It enables professionals to identify specific work environments that exhaust their energy.

C.  It allows individuals to secure higher salaries regardless of their intrinsic motivations.

D.  It helps people navigate change resiliently and sustain long-term career satisfaction.

Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.

Question 31: The phrase “hit the ground running”in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE meaning to __________.

A.  move forward without delay        B. begin slowly and hesitate

C.  start at a steady pace                D. get started right away

Question 32: Because a prototype may have a short lifespan, __________.

A.  teams should ignore logs and monitoring, since small trials rarely create serious mistakes overall.

B.  developers must keep identical rules for demos and products, even if users are affected.

C.  only speed matters, so generated changes can be accepted without tests or human review.

D.  rules can be lighter for low-stakes demos than for tools that affect real users.

Question 33: Where in the passage does the following sentence best fit?

Rapid output may hide structural flaws when evaluation relies only on visible results.

A.  [I]        B. [II]        C. [III]        D. [IV]

Question 34: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A.  Stricter testing and review become more necessary as a vibe coded project moves from demos to real users.

B.  Vibe coding removes the need to understand code, since AI reliably handles debugging, monitoring, and safety checks alone.

C.  Saving prompts is mainly useful for speeding up design meetings, not for tracing decisions or finding the source of bugs.

D.  Teams should ace

pt generated changes immediately during deadlines, because quick fixes are cheaper than careful tests later.

Question 35: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?

A.  Even fun builds need rules to spot bugs late, relying on notes, simple alerts, and a slower rollback.

B.  Light projects can ignore early checks, since logs and monitoring mostly matter after release anyway.

C.  Playful work should prevent mistakes by banning logs, skipping monitoring, and avoiding any reversal steps.

D.  Even casual projects still need a system to catch errors early, using logs, basic monitoring, and an easy rollback.

Question 36: The word “its”in paragraph 3 refers to __________.

A.  debugging        B. prompting        C. workflow        D. project

Question 37: Which of the following best summarises the passage?

A.  AI automates coding fully, so teams can ignore tests and ship faster with minimal oversight.

B.  Vibe coding speeds building, but reliability requires testing, review, and safeguards as responsibility increases.

C.  Traditional coding is replaced by prompts, making vocabulary choices more important than software quality.

D.  Vibe coding mainly teaches word meanings, so workflow rules matter less than linguistic accuracy.

Question 38: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A.  Keeping prompts beside code helps trace decisions and test code bugs origins later.

B.  Keeping prompts beside code removes the need for tests in fast vibe coding.

C.  Keeping prompts beside code ensures every generated library is safe without review.

D.  Keeping prompts beside code prevents any hidden flaws when results look correct.

Question 39: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a way to keep vibe coding reliable?

A.  Allocate time for small tests and validate error messages before keeping a generated change.

B.  Save prompts beside the code so later decisions can be traced when a bug appears.

C.  Let the assistant decide which new libraries are safe without asking for a quick human review.

D.  Reach out to a teammate for a brief code-review whenever a new dependency is introduced.

Question 40: In a team using vibe coding for both quick demos and real user-facing tools, which option best matches how safeguards should scale while keeping debugging practical?

A.  Strict controls are optional for high-stakes apps because rapid iteration improves learning, so monitoring and rollback can wait until later stages.

B.  Uniform rules should apply to all projects, since prototypes and production tools face the same risks, and prompts do not aid debugging.

C.  Lightweight demos need no guardrails; saving prompts mainly slows teams down, and reviewing new libraries is enough to prevent failures.

D.  Expectations should rise with real-world impact; even quick prototypes need traceability and an easy rollback so hidden flaws are caught early.