Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.

Question 1: A. break        B. get        C. erode        D. renew

Question 2: A. that is raising        B. raising        C. raised        D. who raised

Question 3: A. bedtime unequal rules        B. bedtime rules unequal

C.  rules unequal bedtime        D. unequal bedtime rules

Question 4: A. to        B. in        C. into        D. within

Question 5: A. repeatable        B. repetition        C. repeatedly        D. repeated

Question 6: A. fairness        B. fair-minded        C. fairly        D. unfairly

Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.

Question 7: A. other                B. another        C. the other        D. the others

Question 8: A. an amount of        B. a piece of        C. a drop of        D. a batch of

Question 9: A. hand in                B. show up        C. break out        D. run through

Question 10: A. Thanks to        B. Instead of        C. Apart from        D. Along with

Question 11: A. profile                B. checklist        C. resume        D. report

Question 12: A. reasonable        B. capable        C. responsible        D. work-ready

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to make a cohesive and coherent exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.

Question 13:

A.  Mia: I’m sorry you’re carrying all that, but I can’t take heavy stuff by surprise—can we slow down and maybe talk after dinner?

B.  Noah: I needed to vent, so I sent you five voice notes at 2
A. m., and now I feel worse because you left them on read.

C.  Mia: I care about you, and I’ll listen, but please ask first; otherwise it turns into trauma dumping and I shut down.

A.  a – b – c        B. b – c – a        C. b – a – c        D. c – b – a

Question 14:

A.  Ethan: That sounds like a situationship—if you want clarity, ask what she actually wants, not just what her texts imply.

B.  Zoe: She calls me “babe” at night, but in public she says we’re “just friends,” and it’s messing with my head.

C.  Ethan: Have you two ever agreed on what you are, or is it just vibes and late-night messages?

D.  Zoe: Mostly vibes, and I keep waiting for her to define it, which makes me anxious.

e. Ethan: Then set a calm time to talk, and decide your boundary if she avoids the question again.

A.  b – d – c – a – e        B. c – b – a – d – e        C. b – c – d – a – e        D. a – b – c – e – d

Question 15:

Dear Hannah,

How are classes going for you? I’ve been trying to keep a steady routine lately.

A.  I used to think I was “busy,” but now I realize I don’t even try to reach out unless something urgent happens.
b. Our group chat still exists, yet it’s mostly memes, and no one follows through when we suggest meeting up.
c. Last weekend I scrolled through old photos and felt weirdly lonely, even though I talk to people online every day.

D.  So I started sending small check-ins—one line, no pressure—and a couple of friends replied with real

updates.

e. That made me notice a kind of friendship recession: we have contacts, but fewer true conversations.

Take care,

Best,
Lina

A.  b – e – c – a – d        B. c – b – e – a – d        C. c – e – b – d – a        D. a – c – b – e – d

Question 16:

A.  Instead of quitting, I stopped volunteering for extra tasks and did only what my job description clearly required.

B.  Quiet quitting often starts when effort keeps increasing but recognition, pay, or basic respect stays flat.

C.  At my part-time café job, I was praised for “being reliable,” yet I ended up covering shifts and training new staff without notice.

D.  That boundary made my stress drop, and my manager finally had to plan schedules properly rather than leaning on guilt.

e. It doesn’t mean someone is lazy; it can be a way to protect mental health when the workplace won’t change.

A.  c – a – b – d – e        B. b – c – a – e – d        C. c – a – d – b – e        D. c – b – a – d – e

Question 17:

A.  People wanted accountability, but the pile-on turned into threats, doxxing attempts, and brands cutting ties before any facts were checked.

B.  Cancel culture moves fast because outrage is shareable, and context rarely fits into a short clip or a screenshot.

C.  A classmate was filmed saying something rude, and the ten-second video spread across school pages before anyone asked what happened earlier.

D.  If we care about change, we should separate criticism from harassment, listen for patterns, and offer a clear path to repair.

e. After that, I started pausing before reposting, and I ask whether I’m helping someone learn or just joining a digital crowd.

A.  c – a – b – d – e        B. b – c – a – e – d        C. c – a – b – d – e        D. c – b – a – d – e

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.

Question 18: 

A.  In order that the radical transition to the hybrid work model could be ushered in, the conventional workflow shattered the onset of the COVID-19 pandemic.

B.  Because the transition to hybrid work ushered in the onset of the COVID-19 pandemic, the conventional workflow was shattered eventually.

C.  However, so profound was the disruption of the conventional workflow by the COVID-19 pandemic’s onset that it ushered in a radical transition to the hybrid work model.

D.  Because the conventional workflow ushered in the radical transition to the hybrid work model, the COVID-19 pandemic’s onset was disrupted profoundly.

Question 19: 

A.  what many firms do is devise schedules apportioning time between remote and on-site work

B.  splitting operational hours across diverse locations is how many corporate agendas function

C.  the arrangement of split shifts between home and corporate sites is widely implemented

D.  many companies design schedules that split employees’ weeks between remote and office days

Question 20: 

A.  whose impact on lessening long-term tiredness and transit-linked tension is notable 

B.  resulting in the alleviation of persistent exhaustion and travel-induced stress

C.  , which helps mitigate chronic fatigue and commuting-related anxiety

D.  so that the mitigation of chronic fatigue and commuting-related anxiety is helped

Question 21: 

A.  due to the absence of vocal disturbances and a more tranquil workspace they have

B.  regardless of having a more tranquil workspace and lack of vocal disturbances

C.  because they have a quieter environment and fewer interruptions

D.  so that they can secure a more tranquil workspace and lack of vocal disturbances

Question 22: 

A.  whose eligibility for superior executive oversight and swifter professional growth is proven

B.  inadvertently deserve greater managerial visibility and accelerated career progression

C.  getting greater managerial visibility and accelerated career progression for inadvertently

D.  with the entitlement to superior executive oversight and swifter professional growth

Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.

Question 23: The word “transformative” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.

A.  revolutionary        B. temporary        C. confusing        D. optional

Question 24: The word “compelling” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to __________.

A.  persuasive        B. convincing        C. unconvincing        D. striking

Question 25: The word "this" in the second paragraph refers to __________.

A.  the impressive 93% of organizations         B. the completion rate of traditional online courses

C.  the enthusiasm for microlearning platforms         D. the satisfaction rate of 94% of learners

Question 26: According to the second paragraph, all of the following figures illustrate the success of microlearning EXCEPT __________.

A.  a completion rate ranging from 70% to 80% among participants

B.  a projected market valuation of nearly 3 billion dollars by 2025

C.  a vast majority of learners expressing contentment with the platforms

D.  a decrease in the cost of corporate training for 93% of organizations

Question 27: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4: "Microlearning meets these demands, enabling employees to upgrade skills without sacrificing productivity."? A. Not until employees sacrifice their productivity can microlearning meet the demands of upgrading their professional skills.

B.  No sooner had microlearning enabled employees to upgrade their skills than the demands for productivity were sacrificed.

C.  By allowing for skill enhancement while maintaining work efficiency, microlearning satisfies the requirements of the modern workforce.

D.  Were it not for the sacrifice of productivity, microlearning could not have met the demands for upgrading employees' skills.

Question 28: Based on the information in paragraph 3, what is the primary cognitive reason why microlearning is more effective than traditional methods?

A.  It eliminates the need for employees to review materials during their daily commutes.

B.  It provides longer sessions that allow students to deeply immerse themselves in complex topics.

C.  It aligns with human attention spans and combats the rapid rate at which learned information is lost.

D.  It guarantees that 100% of the learned material will be remembered for more than one year.

Question 29: In which paragraph does the author contrast the effectiveness of microlearning with the limitations of conventional education formats?

A.  Paragraph 1         B. Paragraph 2         C. Paragraph 3         D. Paragraph 4

Question 30: In which paragraph is the economic growth and corporate adoption rate of microlearning discussed?

A.  Paragraph 1         B. Paragraph 2         C. Paragraph 3         D. Paragraph 4

Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.

Question 31: Where in the passage does the following sentence best fit?         

This silence matters for more than public relations.

A.  [I]         B. [II]         C. [III]         D. [IV]

Question 32: Which outcome is most consistent with the passage’s reasoning about greenhushing and ESG ratings?
A. Investors can evaluate impact more accurately because fewer firms issue sustainability claims.

B.  ESG scores will become perfectly aligned with measurable climate impact as firms communicate less.

C.  Capital will be redirected mainly to fossil-fuel firms because silence signals stronger environmental performance.

D.  Money may flow toward firms with stronger narratives, even when their emission cuts are smaller.

Question 33: The word "that" in paragraph 3 refers to __________.

A.  measurable impact                B. the gap between words and actions

C.  visible performance                D. research on ESG ratings

Question 34: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for companies becoming more silent about ESG?

A.  The perception of ESG as an ideological project by some lawmakers.

B.  Policy choices that specifically target managers unfriendly to fossil fuels.

C.  The lack of energy efficiency improvements in most large corporations.

D.  The concern that bold environmental pledges may lead to future criticism.

Question 35: Which of the following best summarises the main content of paragraph 2?

A.  Leaders in the United States are successfully replacing ESG goals with shareholder returns to ensure that fossil-fuel industries remain dominant in Texas.

B.  Political pushback and the fear of being held accountable for unfulfilled pledges are driving many financial institutions to reduce their public ESG commitments.

C.  The Conference Board report of 2025 suggests that political pressure is the only factor that determines whether a company chooses to adopt sustainability plans.

D.  Conservative lawmakers are demanding that asset managers increase their social goals to balance the ideological tension within the modern sustainability project.

Question 36: The word "bold" in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to __________.

A.  brave        B. cautious        C. clear        D. light

Question 37: According to the passage, why is greenhushing considered a significant problem for investors?

A.  It forces companies to spend too much money on energy efficiency and sourcing rather than on public relations and branding.

B.  It ensures that ESG ratings accurately reflect a firm's measurable impact rather than just their communication skills and visibility.

C.  It deprives them of the necessary information required to distinguish genuine environmental progress from superficial corporate branding.

D.  It prevents capital from flowing toward firms that tell a cleaner story, thereby making the market for sustainability more competitive.

Question 38: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4: "Sustainability transitions are messy and take time, and firms need room to improve without fear that every shortfall will be treated as proof of bad faith."?

A.  Because sustainability takes time, firms should be allowed to ignore their shortfalls until they can prove that their faith in environmental projects is genuine.

B.  The messiness of sustainability transitions means that firms must improve quickly so that their failures are never interpreted as a lack of commitment.

C.  Corporate environmental progress requires a supportive environment where gradual improvements are permitted without every failure being viewed as intentional deception.

D.  Every shortfall in a firm's environmental work must be treated as proof of bad faith if the sustainability transition is to be completed within a reasonable time.

Question 39: Which of the following can be most likely inferred from the passage?

A.  Companies that engage in greenwashing are generally more successful at cutting emissions than those that choose to practice greenhushing.

B.  The 2025 Conference Board report suggests that the political fight over ESG will end once companies stop revising their sustainability plans.

C.  High ESG ratings may sometimes be a better reflection of a company's marketing capabilities than its actual success in reducing carbon emissions.

D.  Asset managers in Texas are likely to increase their climate pledges to avoid being targeted by policy choices that favor the fossil-fuel industry.

Question 40: Which of the following best summarises the passage?

A.  Greenwashing remains the primary threat to ESG investing because it allows firms to overstate their progress without facing any political backlash.

B.  The conflict between social goals and shareholder returns has made it impossible for companies to balance profit with any form of climate responsibility.

C.  The rise of greenhushing, driven by political pressure and fear of scrutiny, threatens the transparency needed for effective climate-related capital allocation.

D.  Distinguishing between greenhushing and greenwashing is a simple task that requires investors to focus solely on measurable impact and visible performance.